GENERAL STUDIES & MENTAL ABILITY

GENERAL STUDIES & MENTAL ABILITY
(Series – A) Question Paper with Key sheet


01. Which of the following causes the rusting of iron?
(a) Oxidation (b) Reduction
(c) Chemical reaction with oxygen (d) Chemical reaction with CO2
(1) a and b (2) b and c (c) cand d (d) a and c
Ans: (4)

02. Water gas is prepared by passing
(1) Steam over white-hot coke (2) Air over red-hot coke
(3) Methane over red-hot coke (4) Steam over heated sulphur
Ans: (1)

03. Match the following:
A. Anemometer (i). High temperature
B. Tachometer (ii). Power of machine
C. Pyrometer (iii) Rotation speed
D. Dynamometer (iv) Velocity of fluid
(1) A-ii, B-i, C-iii, D-iv (2) A-iii, B-iv C-ii, D-i
(3) A-iv, B-iii, C-i, D-ii (4) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i
Ans: (3)

04. What is the correct sequence of the following in a heart attack?
(a) Narrowing of the inner orifice of the vessel.
(b) Plaque from fibrous tissue and high cholesterol.
(c) Inadequate supply of blood and oxygen.
(d) Clots of blood carried into the coronary arteries.
(1) a, b, c, d (2) b, d, a, c (3) b, c, a, d (d) d, b, a, c
Ans: (2)

05. Which one of the following best explains what pasteurized milk is ?
(1) Fresh and unboiled milk ready for packing in pouches
(2) Milk free from micro-organisms and protected from fermentation
(3) Milk made from fat contents
(4) Powdered milk packed in air-tight containers
Ans: (2)


06. The period of revolution of a geostationary satellite is
(1) 24 hours (2) 30 days (3) 365 days (4) changing continuously
Ans: (1)

07. The filament of an electric lamp becomes white hot but the lead-in wires holding the
filament are only slightly heated because, they
(1) have smaller current passing through them
(2) have very low resistance
(3) have higher melting point
(4) are made of black iron
Ans: (2)

08. The astronomical (AU) is the
(1) mean distance from the centre of the sun to the centre of the Earth
(2) mean distance between the surface of the sun to the surface of the Earth
(3) maximum distance between the sun and the Earth
(4) minimum distance between the sum and the Earth
Ans: (1)

09. Stars appear to move from East to West because the
(1) whole Universe is moving from East to West
(2) Earth is revolving around the Sun
(3) Earth is rotating East to West
(4) Earth is rotating from West to East
Ans: (4)

10. Consider the following metals:
(a) Platinum (b) Gold (c) Copper (d) Lead
Their correct arrangement in the increasing order of density is
(1) c, d,b,a (2) d, c, b,a (3) a, b, c, d (4) c, d, a, b
Ans: (1)

11. A fish that is devoid of any scales is
(1) Carp (2) Dog fish (3) Cat fish (d) Mullet
Ans: (1)

12. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the
lists:
List I List – II
(Planets) (Moons)


A. Mars 1. Titan
B. Saturn 2. Miranda
C. Uranus 3. Phobos
D. Jupiter 4. Ganymede
Codes:
ABCD ABCD


(1) 1324 (2) 3124
(3) 3142 (4) 2134
Ans: (2)



13. The oxygen that keeps us alive is a product or photosynthesis. It comes from
(1) Carbon dioxide (2) Carbonate absorbed from soil
(3) Oxides of mineral elements (4) Water
Ans: (4)

14. Gene, the basic unit of heredity, was first synthesized in the laboratory by
(1) Arthur Kornberg (2) Hargobind Khorana
(3) Gregor Mendel (4) Watson and Crick
Ans: (2)

15. Which of the following plant diseases caused by bacteria?
(1) Citrus die-back (2) Karnal bunt of wheat
(3) Potato witches’ broom (4) Tundu disease of wheat
Ans: (4)

16. Which of the following crops is/are affected by the early blight disease?
(1) Potato (2) Rice (3) Sugarcane (4) Wheat
Ans: (1)

17. Two solutions are said to be isotonic when they
(1) have the same osmotic pressure
(2) are of equal concentration
(3) contain the same solute dissolyed in them
(4) have the same vapour pressure
Ans: (1)

18. The processes that can be used for making artificial enzymes may be
(a) genetic engineering
(b) synthesis of crown ethers.
(c) donaturation of proteins from living systems.
Out of the above three reactions, the correct reactions are
(1) a and c (2) a and b (3) a, b and c (4) b and c
Ans: (2)
19. Interferon is
(1) an anti-bacterial drug (2) an anti-cancer agent
(3) an anti-viral agent (4) a hormone
Ans: (3)
20. An isoentropic process occurs at
(1) constant temperature (2) constant pressure
(3) constant entropy (4) constant enthalpy
Ans: (3)
21. Which state has the lowest density?
(1) Jammu & Kashmir (2) Rajasthan
(3) Nagaland (4) Arunachal Pradesh
Ans: (4)

22. In which area are Zoroastrains concentrated?
(1) Tamil Nadu (2) Andhra Pradesh
(3) Maharashtra (4) Madhya Pradesh
Ans: (3)

23. OTEC refers to
(1) Oceanic mineral resources (2) Tidal and wave energy
(3) Ocean thermal gradient energy (4) None of the above
Ans: (3)

24. Where was the National Agricultural Science Complex established?
(1) Delhi (2) Bangalore (3) Madras (4) Calcutta
Ans: (1)

25. Intensive subsistence farming is characteristic of the area of
(1) high density of population and high technology
(2) low density of population and high technology
(3) low density of population and low technology
(4) high density of population and low technology
Ans: (4)

26. How many National Highways are existing in Andhra Pradesh?
(1) 10 (2) 13 (3) 17 (4) 20
Ans: (3)

27. What is the percentage of the population in Andhra Pradesh according to the Social and
Economic survey estimates of out country for 2010-11?
(1) 7.16% (2) 8.0% (3) 7.0% (4) 7.27%
Ans: (3)

28. How many lacs of heactares of land area is there in Andhra Pradesh?
(1) 274.09 lacs Ha (2) 270.0 lacs Ha.
(3) 275.04 lacs Ha (4) 273.0 lacs Ha.
Ans: (3)

29. When did the National Horticulture Mission commence?
(1) 2004 (2) 2005 (3) 2009 (4) 2010
Ans: (2)

30. Who was the Chairman of NABARD in 2011?
(1) A.K, Singh (2) V.C, Saarangi (3) K.N. Vajpai (4) D. Subba Rao
Ans: (1)

31. Where was the important meeting of the Mahatma Gandhi National Employment
Guarantee Scheme held during 2010?
(1) Kolkata (2) Bengaluru (3) Delhi (4) Nagpur
Ans: (3)

32. In IPL 2010 Golden Player of the tournament was
(1) Pollard (2) Dhoni (3) Suresh Raina (4) Sachin Tendulkar
Ans: (4)

33. What is the serial number of the census of India done during the year 2011?
(1) 14th (2) 16th (3) 15th (4) 18th
Ans: (3)

34. Where is the Maulana Azad National Institute of Technology located?
(1) Lucknow (2) Pune (3) Bhopal (4) Kolkata
Ans: (3)

35. The Montreal Protocol is related to
(1) Ozone depletion (2) Nuclear weapons
(3) Land mines (4) Sea-bed
Ans: (1)

36. Which of the following will host the 20th FIFA world Cup in 2014?
(1) Spain (2) Brazil (3) Germany (4) Argentina
Ans: (2)

37. The annual Summit meeting of the shanghai Cooperation Organisation was held in 2010
at
(1) Tashkent (2) Dushanbe (3) Astana (4) Bishkek
Ans: (1)

38. The Almatti dam is on the river
(a) Godavari (2) Cauvery (3) Krishna (4) Mahanadi
Ans: (3)

39. New name of GATT is
(1) UNEEPA (2) APEC (3) WTO (4) OSCE
Ans: (3)

40. G-20 Summit was recently held in
(1) New York (2) Seoul (3) London (4) Tokyo
Ans: (2)

41. Aung San Suu Kyi-pro-democracy leader of Myanmar, was released from house arrest by
the military rulers in
(1) September 2010 (2) November 2010
(3) October 2010 (4) December 2010
Ans: (2)

42. The United Kingdom signed treaties agreeing to military cooperation including testing of
nuclear warheads with
(1) Belgium (2) France (3) The Netherlands (4) Germany
Ans: (2)

43. Which year has been set as a deadline for withdrawal of troops by North Atlantic Treaty
Organisation from Afghanistan?
(1) 2013 (2) 2015 (3) 2014 (4) 2016
Ans: (3)

44. Dilma Rousseff has been elected the new President of
(1) Brazil (2) Argentina (3) Peru (4) Chile
Ans: (1)

45. Justice Arun Kumar Mishra is the Chief Justice of
(1) Calcutta High Court (2) Rajasthan High Court
(3) Madras High court (4) Bombay High court
Ans: (2)

46. The period when men used both stomes and copper tools is known as the
(1) Monolithic Age (2) Chalcolithic Age
(3) Neolithic Age (4) Metal Age
Ans: (2)

47. Which among the following was the chief feature of Rig-Vedic religion?
(1) Performance of sacrifices
(2) Worship of images
(3) Belief in existence of life after death
(4) Predominance of female goddesses
Ans: (1)

48. With which religion is Kaivalya associated?
(1) Buddhism (2) Jainism (3) Hinduism (4) Sikhism
Ans: (2)

49. The misl of which Ranjit Singh was the leader, was
(1) Sukerchakia (2) Ahuluwalia (3) Phulkia (4) Ramgarhia
Ans: (1)

50. Akbar collected a very valuable library manuscripts on all subjects, because
(1) he was a voracious reader
(2) he wanted to write Akbarnama
(3) he had a great hunger for knowledge
(4) he wanted to start a new religion
Ans: (4)

51. The major difference between “Varna” and “Jati” is that
(1) Varna was formed after Jati
(2) Jati wad derived from Varna
(3) Varna are only four but Jati are many
(4) They are unrelated
Ans: (3)

52. The famous Besnagar pillar inscription of century 150 BC refers to the great theistic cult
of
(1) Panchika and Hariti (2) Pashupathas
(3) Krishna-Vasudeva (4) Shakti
Ans: (3)

53. The Buddhist monument Stupa was raised
(a) over Buddha’s relics
(b) at places connected with Buddha’s life
(c) over relics of celebrated members of that sangha.
(d) as obects of devotion by Buddhist monasteries.
Which of the above statements are correct ?
(1) a only (2) a and b only
(3) a, b and c only (4) a, b, cand d
Ans: (3)

54. Dhai-din-ka Jhopra at Ajmer was constructed by
(1) Sher Shah (2) Qutub-ud-din
(3) Jalaluddin Firoz Khilji (4) Balban
Ans: (2)

55. Which of the following formed the eastern limit of the Sultanate in 1335?
(1) Jajnagar (2) Poshawar (3) Kalanaur (4) Malwa
Ans: (1)

56. Mohammad Ghazni attacked India many times mainly
(1) to plunder the wealth of India
(2) to spread Islam in India
(3) to establish his empire in India
(4) to take the famous artisans of India to his Cours
Ans: (1)

57. Put the following in ascending chronological order of construction:
(a) Puri Jagnannath Temple (b) Meenakshi Temple
(c) Mamallapuram temple (d) Kutub Minar
(1) a, b, c, d (2) a, b, b, d (3) b, c, a, d (4) c, a, d, b
Ans: (4)

58. When did “The Mother Goddess” after centuries of neglect become an object of worship
again?
(1) Later Vedic time (1000 – 600BC)
(2) The Mauryan phase (321-185 BC)
(3) The years between the Mauryas and the Guptas (184 BC-AD 320)
(4) The period from the rise of the Guptas to the death of Harsha Vardhana (AD 320-647)
Ans: (3)

59. The most short lived of all constitutional reforms in British India
(1) The Indian Councils Act of 1909 (2) Montague-Chelmsford Reforms of 1919
(3) Indian council Act of 1892 (4) Indian Council Act of 1861
Ans: (1)

60. Raja Ram Mohan Roy’s reform of Hinduism was along the lines of
(a) condemnation of idolatry
(2) Irrelevance of Brahmnical priestcraft
(c) Propagation of monotheism
(4) Projection of Vedas as the repository of all scientific truths
Which of the above statements are correct?
(1) a and d (2) a, c and d (3) a, b and c
Ans: (4)
(4) All of the above
61. Match important court poets/scholars with their patrons :
A. Ravikirti Gupta i. Samudra
B. Bhavabhuti ii. Harsha
C. Hariscna iii. Pulakesin
D. Banabhatta iv. Yashovarman of Kannauj
(1) A –iii, B-i, C-ii, D-iv (2) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i
(3) A-iii, B-iv, C-I, D-ii (4) A-I, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv
Ans: (3)
62. Vedic texts mention Vrihi, Tandula and Sali to refer to
(1) Wheat (2) Barley (3) Rice
Ans: (3)
(4) Gram

63. Successive Sultans attempted to control the nobility through various ways, but did not
fully succeed
Match the following:
A. Balban i. Built a small nobility on the principle of heredity
B. Alla-ud-din Khilji ii. Nobility based on personal loyalty checked by spies
C. Mohammad –Bin iii. For a better Tughlaq control, the dispersed nobility
D. Firoz Shah Tughlaq iv. Created a nobility based on the racial antecedents
(1) A – ii, B-iii, C-iv, D-i (2) A-iv, B-i, C-iii, D-ii
(3) A-iv, B-ii, C-iii, D-I (4) A – ii, B-iv, C-iii, D-i
Ans: (3)

64. Who declared “The only hope for India is from the masses. The upper classes are
physically and normally dead”?
(1) Gopal Krishan Gokhale
(2) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(3) Mahatma Gandhi
(4) Swami vivekanand
Ans: (4)

65. Who was the advocate at the famous INA trials?
(1) Bhulabhai Desai (2) Asaf Ali
(3) Subhash Chandra Bose (4) C. Rajagopalachari
Ans: (1)

66. What was the chief programme of the Swaraj Party?
(1) Council entry
(2) Constitutional opposition
(3) Rural reconstruction programme
(4) None of the above
Ans: (1)

67. Which was the only province where Muslims had taken to commerce and education quite
early?
(1) Calcutta (2) Punjab (3) Madras (4) Bombay
Ans: (1)

68. Which of the following classes participated the least in the Indian. National movement?
(1) Capitalists
(2) Princes of States
(3) Government’s officials (4) Peasants
Ans: (2)

69. Horse latitudes is the term applied to the
(1) 00.50 N and S latitudes (2) Polar circles
(3) 300-400 N and S latitudes (4) 400.600N and S latitudes
Ans: (3)

70. The velocity of winds is governed by
(1) Pressure gradient (2) Ferrel’s law
(3) Rotation of the Earth (4) Temperature
Ans: (1)

71. The Saturn rings were discovered by
(1) Copernicus (2) Newton (3) Galileo (4) None of the above
Ans: (3)

72.
The planet having no moon is
(1) Mercury (2) Pluto (3) Venus (4) Neptune
Ans: (both 1 &3 answer are correct)

73.
The Earth’s annual circuit round the Sun covers a distance of
(1) 1098 millions kms
(2) 1038 millions kms
(3) 966 million kms
(4) 896 millions kms
Ans: (3)

74.
The International Date Line passes through the
(1) Bass Strait (2) Bering Strait (3) Cook Strait (4) Horn Strait
Ans: (2)

75.
Which of the following natural regions is known as ‘the big game country’ or ‘a land of
Safari’?
(1) Tropical deserts
(2) Equatorial regions
(3) Temperate grassland regions (4) Savanna or Tropical grassland regions
Ans: (4)

76.
Canary Islands are dependenties of
(1) Spain (2) Portugal (3) Germany
(4) U.K
Ans: (1)

77.
A pharmaceutical plant of India is
(1) IDPL, Hyderabad
(2) IDPL, Kanpur
(3) HSL, Bhilal
(4) HIL, Delhi
Ans: (1)

78.
The most important producer of tin in India is
(1) Bihar
(2) Rajasthan
(3) Karnataka
(4) Andhra Pradesh
Ans: (2)

79.
Which iron and steel plant has been established with German collaboration?
(1) TISO, Jamshedpur
(2) HSL, Rourkela
(3) HSL, Bhilai
(4) HSL, Durgapur
Ans: (2)

80.
What is the present population of the world?
(1) 5.6 Billion (2) 5.8 billion (3) 6.4 billion (4) 7 billion
Ans: (4)

81.
Which part of United States is most densely populated?
(1) North – Central (2) North – Western (3) North-Eastern (4) South – Central
Ans: (3)

82.
Which of the following places is likely to have a time ahead of GMT?
(1) Lisbon (2) Beghadad (3) New York (4) Buenos Aires
Ans: (2)

83.
India’s first cotton textile mill was established at Fort Gloster in 1818? In which state is
it located?
(1) Maharashtra (2) West Bengal (3) Tamil Nadu (4) Gujarat
Ans: (2)

84.
Black soil requires least tilling because,
(1) it is fertile
(2) it develops cracks on drying
(3) it is a lava origin (4) it has plenty of iron and aluminium compounds
Ans: (2)

85.
An upper air wind system with very high velocities in certain parts of the atmosphere is
called
(1) a cyclone (2) an anti cyclone (3) jet stream (4) a tsunami
Ans: (3)

86.
What are the factors influencing ocean currents?
a. Corioilis force
b. Local winds
c. Waves
d. Continent shape
(1) a and d (2) a, cand d (3) a and c (4) a, b and d
Ans: (4)

87.
All of the following are agents of fog formation except for
(1) high relative humidity (2) diurnal temperatures of short ranges
(3) winter season
(4) rapid radiation
Ans: (3)

88.
Which is an organic rock?
(1) Marble (2) Coal (3) Granite (4) Slate
Ans: (2)

89.
The constituent Assembly was created by
(1) Simla Conference 1945 (2) Cabinet Mission Plan
(3) Indian Independence Act (4) Cripps Mission
Ans: (2)

90.
Which of the following is a feature of the Parliamentary form of government?
(1) Executive is responsible to Judiciary
(2) Executive is responsible to Legislature
(3) Judiciary is responsible to Execute
(4) Legislature is responsible to Executive
Ans: (2)

91.
Right to property is a
(1) Fundamental Right
(2) Political Right
(3) Civil Right
(4) Legal Right
Ans: (4)

92.
Which of the following has banned “floor crossing” by he members elected on a party
ticket to the legislature?
(1) 52nd Constitution Amendment Act (2) Peoples Representation Act
(3) National Security Act (4) Maintenance of Internal Security Act
Ans: (1)

93.
The Union Territories get representation in
(1) Lok Sabha
(2) Rajya Sabha
(3) Both houses of Parliament (4) None of the above.
Ans: (3)

94.
Who is competent to prescribe conditions for acquiring Indian citizenship?
(1) Parliament
(2) State Legislature
(3) President
(4) Attorney General
Ans: (1)

95.
The Supreme Court was set up under
(1) Pitt’s India Act
(2) Indian Councils Act 1861
(3) Regulating Act
(4) Indian Councils Act 1892
Ans: (3)

96.
The members of the Constituent Assembly
(1) were directly elected (2) were all nominated
(3) were indirectly elected (4) were partly elected directly by the people
Ans: (3)

97.
The source of political power in India lies with
(1) the Constitution
(2) the Parliament
(3) the people of India
(4) the Legislature and the Judiciary
Ans: (3)

98.
The concept that the courts can punish a person for contempt of court was borrowed
from
(1) UK
(2) USA
(3) Govt. of India Act 1935 (4) South Africa
Ans: (1)

99.
Which one of the following Lok Sabhas was dissolved before expiry of its normal term
and mid-term elections ordered?
(1) First
(2) Third (3) Fourth (4) Seventh
Ans: (3)

100.
The Swaraj Party soon got divided on the issue of
(1) not contesting elections in 1926
(2) acceptance of membership of the Executive Council of the Governor
(3) cooperation with the Muslim league
(4) All of the above
Ans: (2)

101.
Who among the following transferred the Shivaji and Ganapti festival in to a national
festival?
(1) Lala Lajpat Rai
(2) Bal Ganagadhar Tilak
(3) Veer Savarkar
(4) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
Ans: (2)

102.
The Indian National Congress observed Independence Day for the first time on 26th
January in
(1) 1920
(2) 1925 (3) 1930 (4) 1947
Ans: (3)

103.
A person can move the Supreme Court direction in the event of violation of
Fundamental Rights under
(1) Article 19 (2) Article 32 (3) Article 34 (4) None of the above
Ans: (2)
104. Mahatma Gandhi launched the Non-Cooperation Movement in
(1) 1919
Ans: (4)
(2) 1921 (3) 1931 (4) 1920
105. The PIL in India has been introduced by
(1) Constitutional Am(3) Political Parties
Ans: (2)
endment (2) Judicial Initiative
(4) Parliamentary

106.
Vijay L. Kelkar, who was appointed as the Chairman of the 13th Finance Commision is
a former
(1) Comptroller and Auditor General (2) Finance Secretary
(3) Chairman of Planning Commission (4) None of the above
Ans: (2)

107.
Chelliah Committee (1992 -93) recommended that in Income Tax there should be
(1) higher rates (2) broader spread between minimum and maximum rates
(3) minimum incentives (4) maximum incentives
Ans: (3)

108.
Which South Asian country has adopted, Gross Nationa Happiness as an index of the
well being of its citizens?
(1) Bangladesh (2) Bhutan (3) Sri Lanka (4) Myanmar
Ans: (2)

109.
Which year is known as “year of the great divide” with regard to population growth in
India?
(1) 1921
(2) 1951
(3) 1947
(4) None of the above
Ans: (1)

110.
In India, National Income is computed by
(1) Ministry of Finance
(2) Central Statistical Organisation
(3) Planning Commision (4) Indian Statistical Institute
Ans: (2)

111.
National Planning Committee (1938) was chaired by
(1) Jawaharlal Nehru
(2) M. Visveswarayya
(3) Dadabhai Naoroji
(4) M.N. Roy
Ans: (1)

112.
The Planning commission was set up in accordance with the Directive Principles in
(1) Article 38 (2) Article 39 (3) Article 42 (4) Article 51(A)
Ans: (1)

113.
Labour participation of women in India is
(1) 20%
(2) 15% (3) 32% (4) 9%
Ans: (3)

114.
Which of the following is not a method of estimating National Income?
(1) Product Method
(2) Export-import Method
(3) Income Method
(4) Expenditure Method
Ans: (2)

115.
Chronic unemployment is measured using
(1) US data
(2) CWS data
(3) None of the two
(4) Both (1) and (2)
Ans: (4)

116.
The cause for a steep decline in population in India in 1921 Census was
(1) First World War
(2) Influenza
(3) Famine
(4) Partition of Bengal
Ans: (2)

117.
Land Development Banks form a part of the
(1) Commercial Banks
(2) Industrial Development Bank of India
(3) Food Corporation of India (4) Cooperative Credit Structure
Ans: (4)

118.
Decent ralised planning on the basis of Panchayat Raj institutions was recommended by
(1) Balwantray Mehta Committee (2) Mahalanobis Committee
(3) Asoka Mehta Committee (4) Gadgil Committee
Ans: (1)

119.
The State which has the lowest percentage of persons below the poverty line is
(1) Kerala (2) Maharashtra (3) Punjab (4) Gujarat
Ans: (3)

120.
National Income is arrived at by adding to Net Domestic Product
(1) Depreciation
(2) Net inflow from abroad
(3) Indirect taxes
(4) Subsidies
Ans: (3)

121.
First Plan adopted
(1) Lewis- Fei model
(2) Mahalanobis model
(3) Harrod Domar model (4) Keynesian model
Ans: (3)

122.
Panchayat Raj institutions are intended to strengthen
(1) Indicative planning
(2) Multilevel planning
(3) Structural planning
(3) Functional planning
Ans: (2)

123.
India has ………. % of the world’s geographical area and …….. % of the world
population.
(1) 4, 18
(2) 2.6, 16 (3) 2.4, 16 (4) 3.2, 15
Ans: (3)

Series -A


15


124.
The ex-officio chairman of the planning Commission of India is the
(1) Planning Minister
(2) Finance Minister
(3) Prime Minister
(4) Governor of R.B.I
Ans: (3)

125.
Which one of the following sectors has attracted the maximum FDI during the last four
years?
(1) Software
(2) Telecommunication
(3) Structural planning
(4) Functional planning
Ans: (2)

126.
What is the percentage of India’s population to the World population?
(1) 6%
(2) 16% (3) 26% (4) 36%
Ans: (2)

127.
2, 15, 41, 80 ……
(1) 132
(2) 121 (3) 111 (4) 120
Ans: (1)

128.
AGNI-V Missile was launched on
(1) 18th April 2012 (2) 20th April 2012 (3) 19th April 2012 (4) 21st April 2012
Ans: (3)

129.
If PASSPORT is coded as RECURQTV, then how will BOOKLET be coded?
(1) CPPLMFU (2) CQQMNFV (3) DQQMNGV (4) DRRNMGW
Ans: (3)

130.
If India is written as 95491, then Delhi will be written as
(1) 45389 (2) 45489 (3) 45498 (4) 45398
Ans: (1)

131.
The missing number in the given figure is
(1) 44
30
36 22
11
15 18
72
? 60
(2) 48
(3) 40
(4) 50
Ans: (1)

132.
Prema has a son named Anand. Rajiv is Prema’s brother. Neha too has a dauthter
named Rashmi. Neha is Rajiv’s sister. What is the relationship to Rashmi?
(1) Uncle
Ans: (3)
(2) Brother-in-law (3) Cousin (4) No relationship
133. Pan is to Nap as Tap is to
(1) Water
Ans: (4)
(2) Tip (3) Cap (4) Pat

134. Cork is to Bottle as ……… is to Box
1. Lock
(2) Side (3) Colour (4) Lid
Ans: (4)

135.
Rekha is Virendra’s mother’s daughter’s daughter. What is her relationship with
Virendra?
(1) Aunt
(2) Friend (3) Niece (4) Nephew
Ans: (3)

136.
Match the following:
A. Desert (i). Sky
B. River (ii). Boulders
C. Mountain (iii). Flood
D. Clouds (iv) Famine
A B C D
(1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(2) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(3) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)
(4) (ii) (i) (iv) (iii)
Ans: (3)

137.
Two players are tossing a balanced coin. If it shows heads four times in a row, what is
the probability that a head will occur in the fifth
(1) 0.25
(2) 0.50
(3) 0.75
(4) None of the above
Ans: (2)

138.
If the day tomorrow is Sunday, what was it yesterday?
(1) Wednesday (2) Thursday (3) Friday (4) Saturday
Ans: (3)

139.
A clock shows the time as 12.20. What is the angle the hour hand makes with the
minute hand?
(1) 1000
(2) 1100 (3)1200 (4) 1300
Ans: (2)

140.
How many prime numbers are integer multiples of 26?
(1) 0
(2) 1 (3) 5 (4) 2
Ans: (4)

Directions: (Questions 141 to 145):
Five friends P, Q, R, S and T are traveling in a group

(i) In the group, there is one tennis player, one cricket player and one chess player.
(ii) P, the son of a doctor, carns more than the tennis player
(iii)S is an unmarried
(iv)There is one married couple in the group of which Q is the husband.
(v) T is the brother of R and is neither a chess player nor a cricket player
(vi)The cricket player earns the least money.

141. Which of the following is a group of male friends?
(1) P, Q, R
Ans: (4)
(2) Q, T, R (3) P, T, R (4) P, Q, T
142. Who is the cricket player?
(1) P (2) Q
Ans: (2)
(3)R (4) S
143. Who is the sister of R?
(1) P (2) Q
Ans: (3)
(3) S (4) T
144. Who is the chess player?
(1) P (2) Q
Ans: (1)
(3) R (4) S
145. Who is the wife of Q?
(1) P
Ans: (2)
(2) R (3) S (4) T
146. Select the odd one out
(1) Crying
Ans: (1)
(2) Frying (3) Drying (4) Sweeping
147. Earthquakes and volcanoes are associated with
(1) folded and faulted region
(3) plateau region
Ans: (1)
(2) deep sea plains
(3) coastal region
148. The term ‘Nife’ refers to

(1) earthquakes (2) core of the Earth (3) crust of the Earth (4) Ocean beds
Ans: (2)

149. What is a cyclone?
(1) A low pressure system with clockwise winds in the northern hemisphere
(2) A high pressure system with anticlockwise winds in the northern hemisphere
(3) A low pressure system with anticlockwise winds in the northern hemisphere
(4) A high pressure system with clockwise winds in the northern hemisphere
Ans: (3)

150. The National day for disaster reduction is
(1) 28th October (2) 29th October (3) 30th October (4) 31st October.
Ans: (2)